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Sale of barge


jaq C

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I recently sold my barge and was charged 10% commission by the mooring owner.

I am ok with that charge but i have since been told that VAT should not have been levied as well.

Can anyone give me an insight on this please. 

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I think if you've paid him and then he's coming after you for that VAT then I'd say tell him to shove it... 

Or perhaps a more reasoned view would be unless you have signed something that explicitly states commission is 10% excluding the vat I would be suggesting he absorbs the vat out of his commission he's still collecting 8.4% for naff all...

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18 minutes ago, robtheplod said:

unless i'm missing something?

 

 

The OP knew about the charge in advance and was free to avoid it by taking his boat somewhere else to sell it. But he readily decided to sell his boat on the mooring and incur the charge. That's what you are missing.

 

What business is it of yours what two people freely agree between them? Unless I'm missing something!

 

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As he is asking you to pay more than 10% of what you received I'd say thats unfair. Better look at the contract, but I'd be digging my heels in. 

I'm not sure, but is he even correct, vatwise asking for  20% on top of the 10 %. 

 

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Random guess is that the boat is in a BWML marina. Now known as "Aquavista". Transferable mooring which makes the boat worth more money (if it is is in London this is the case). So let's say Limehouse or Poplar dock. 

 

I don't understand why Aquavista allow moorings to be transferred and give the owner the money. It would seem to make better business sense to not do this. 

 

Maybe the 10% is a compromise or they are fearful of having empty moorings. 

 

Funny old game really. 

 

I Might have got it wrong.

 

 

Edited by magnetman
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It is condition of contract in many marinas that you cannot sell from the Marina, if you do then you pay them a commission, (the rate will be in the contract) and being a business providing a service there will be VAT to be added.

 

We had the same in our BWML marina, so we simply took it out if the marina, moored up 'on the side', sold the boat and job done.

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1 hour ago, LadyG said:

As he is asking you to pay more than 10% of what you received I'd say thats unfair. Better look at the contract, but I'd be digging my heels in. 

I'm not sure, but is he even correct, vatwise asking for  20% on top of the 10 %. 

 

If you sell in auction I think you will find they quote the percentage sellers premium and that is then plus vat

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I'd guess it depends on their terms in the contract. If it says 10 % plus vat then that's that. If it just says 10% then I would expect them to absorb the vat expense themselves. No expert, used to work in accounting 30 years ago.  Perhaps members currently in business could advise. 

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21 minutes ago, Ianws said:

I'd guess it depends on their terms in the contract. If it says 10 % plus vat then that's that. If it just says 10% then I would expect them to absorb the vat expense themselves. No expert, used to work in accounting 30 years ago.  Perhaps members currently in business could advise. 

 

I agree exactly. Refer to the contract. If there is no written contract then whatever was verbally agreed applies, but proving what was agreed is bloody difficult. If no written contract the OP could probably refuse to pay the VAT and gamble on the likelihood of not being sued for it.

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18 minutes ago, Alan de Enfield said:

 

Why ?

 

Are you suggesting that the general public is incapable of asking 'does that include VAT' 

 

It has been written into legislation for decades now that where a price for goods or services is displayed or quoted to consumers then the price displayed/quoted must include VAT.

 

In a business to business transaction stating plus the appropriate rate of VAT is allowed and is standard practice.

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